/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
How did the term 'Cold War' become so popular to describe the post-WWII "era of tension" and was it just used in The West or did the USSR/Eastern bloc also used a similar/translated term?
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Modern English translations of Plato's accounts of Atlantis in the Timaeus and Critias, regularly state "9,000 years" as the date before Plato's time of writing. How has this date been calibrated from Plato's ancient Greek into the standard modern English translation as "9,000 years"?
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Why do Eastern and Western Christians cross themselves in opposite directions? When did this change happen?
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Can a determination be drawn as to whether US foreign policy has been more or less war-like since conscription in the US was abolished?
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